CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

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1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths
modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

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6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

encryption
encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

IPsec
PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

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1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
  Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

  protocol suite
  source address
  destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

  It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

  Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

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5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

  An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
  A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
  Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

  Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

  FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
  Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

  The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
  The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

  R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

  by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

  extended ACL
  authentication
  Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

  reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

  They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

  In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

  All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

  The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

  the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

  permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

  The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

  The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

  172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

  It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
  Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

  Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
  Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

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1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

  Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

  It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
  It communicates consensus and defines roles.
  It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

  The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
  The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

  The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

  Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

  Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
  Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

  virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

  DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
  to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

  The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
  The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

  A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
  Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

  The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

  The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
  The TFTP server software has not been started.

14 
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

  Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
  Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

  ROM monitor
  Direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

  Document the resources to be protected
  Identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

  SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

  Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

  The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

  Monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

  SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22 
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

  It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
  It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

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NEW CCNA3 FINAL

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1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
***forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

2.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23,the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18
***The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18

3. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the
remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch,but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions?(Choose two.)

Configure an IP address on the new switch
***Configure the existing VTP domain on the new switch
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode
***Configure the new switch as a VTP client
Enable VTP pruning

4.  Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?

A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1
***Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs

5.  Refer to the exhibit. On which of the devices in this network should routing between VLAns take place?

the core layer devices
the access layer devices
the distribution layer devices
***the core and distribution layer devices

6.  Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running
    these commands?

VLAN 30 will be added to S1,S2,and S3,but not to S4
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3
***VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4,S2 or S1
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed

7. After listening for the presence of a signal on the network media, host A and C transmit data at the same time. In what two ways do
   the hosts respond to this situation?(Choose two)
***The hosts transmit a jam signal to ensure that all hosts on the network are aware that a collision has occured
Because they are operating in full-duplex mode, the hosts resume listening for traffic in preparation for sending future messages
Because the hub will temporarily block traffic from one of the hosts, that host will be allowed to transmit once the wire is clear
Hosts A and C are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media for retransmission
***After the backoff eriod of a host, the host checks to  determine if the line is idle before retransmitting

8. Refer to the exhibit.Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and destination address of 192.168.1.161.
   What will the router do with this packet?

***The router will drop the packet
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3

9. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
***The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command

10. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
    switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?

The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches
***The VTP domains are different on both switches
VTP pruning is disabled
VTP v2 is disabled

11. Refer to the exhibit.Both switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which port will act as STP root port if all links are
    operating at the same bandwidth?

Fa0/1 interface of S1
Fa0/2 interface of S1
Fa0/1 interface of S2
***Fa0/2 interface of S2

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
    this problem be resolved?

Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode
***Configure a default gateway on the switch
Configure the native VLAN on the switch
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs

13. What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS
OFDM
***SSID
WPA

14.Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)

***The switch ports are o different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
***The hosts are configured on different logical networks
***A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.22/28
192.168.1.31/28
192.168.1.32/28
***192.168.1.52/28
192.168.1.63/28

16. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting station collide. What is
    the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
***switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of
    the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central ehile leaving
    the switch and all its interfaces operational?(Choose two)

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#reload

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#erase flash:

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#delete flash:vlan.dat

***S1-Central>enable
 S1-Central#configure terminal
 S1-Central(config)#no vlan 2

***S1-Central>enable
 S1-Central#configure terminal
 S1-Central(config-if)#interface fastethernet 0/1
 S1-Central(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3

18. Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk?(Choose two)


Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router
***Because interface Fa0/0 requires an iP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs
***Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0/24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20
The router will use subinterface MAC addersses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown?(Choose two)

Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router
***VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design
Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
***An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur

20. Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts A and D
    cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The link between the switches is up but not trunked
***The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk
Hosts A and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches

21. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)

***The switch ports are is on different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
***The hosts are configured on different logical networks
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
***The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network

22. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch?(Choose three)

***It is configured in VTP server mode
***STP is automatically enabled
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address
***All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1
The enable password is configured as cisco

23. When configuring a router to act as an SSH server, what should be configured before issuing the crypto key generate rsa command?

the security domain name
the VTP domain name
***the IP domain name
the host name

24.Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts about STP can be determined from the displayed output?(Choose two)

***Switch S1 has the lowest configured STP priority in the network
Switch S1 is configured as the root bridge for VLAN1
***Fa0/21 is the root port of switch S1
Fa0/22 is the redundant link
Fa0/24 is considered the best path to the root bridge

25. Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic
    originating from host A on switch ST-C?

It will be dropped
***It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15

26. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch S2 manage traffic coming from host PC1?

S2 will drop the traffic, unless it is management traffic
S2 will tag the frame with VLAN ID 99 when it forwards it over the trunk link
***S2 will leave the traffic untagged when it forwards it over a trunk link
S2 will tag the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value when it forwards it over the trunk link

27. Which two statements are corect about wireless infrastructure components?(Choose two)

An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network
***A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dediated bandwidth to each connected wireless host
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs
***The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router

28. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two
    pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output?(Choose two)

***The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP versin 1 or 2
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain
***This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain

29. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have been configured as shown. The hosts that are connected to switch 101-2FL are not able to
 communicate with the hosts in their corresponding VLANs that are connected to switch 101-3FL. What should be done to fix the problem?

***Configure port Fa0/2 on switch 101-3FL as a static trunk link
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability into the topology
Utilize the switchport trunk allowed vlan all command on switch 101-3FL to permit the VLAN traffic
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces that are used to connect switches 101-2FL and 101-3FL

30. What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design?(choose three)

***Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs
***Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation
***The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management
Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for fully-meshed topology

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. Howerer, host C is unable to ping host D and
    host E is unable to ping host F. What ation should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1
Remote the native VLAN from the trunk
***Configure one trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of S2

32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLAns. The connected hosts can only access
 resources in their own VLAN. What th most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?

Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to is own switch
***Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface

33. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SwT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?

***It is sending and receiving data frames
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data

34. What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model?(Choose two)

***Each subinterface should be configured with its own Ip address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment
***The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router
The router should be configured as the VTP server

35. Refer to the exhibit. Sw-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across the trunk?

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk
***All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only the native VLAN wil be allowed across the trunk
Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk

36. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly urchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2
 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Disable VTP pruning on SW2
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode
***Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number

37. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What
    needs to be one to resolve the problem?

Rename VLAN1
Connect one more port of S1 to R1
***Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as trunk port
Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN

38. Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request it sent by computer 5.
    Which device or devices will receive this message?

only computer 4
***computer 3 and RTR-A
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router

39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B attempt to transmit a frame at the same time and a collision occurs. When will host D be able to transmit?

***immediately
after sending its jam signal
after host A and host B have comleted transmission
after the jam signal clears and its backoff delay expires

40. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections.
    How should the network administrator change the displayed confoguration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1
Reconfigure the RSA key
Configure SSH on a different line
***Modify the transport input command

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

WEP identifies the wireless LAN
WEP allows the access point to inform clients to its presence
WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
***WEP encrypt data between the wireless client and the access point
WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed acces to the WLAN
WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address

42. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches?(Choose two)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2
***A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
 ***An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch3
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch4

43. After unpacking a new Linksys WRT300N wireless multifunction device, a user needs to change the default administrator password
    and make other configuration changes. What must the user doto access the device in order to make these changes?

Use a wireless client to associate with the WRT300N and then open a HyperTerminal sssion with the device
Establish a wired connection with the device and then reboot the attached computer to launch the configuration software
***Establish a wired connection from a computer in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and enter the default IP address of the device into a web browser on the computer
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer that is connected to the WRT300N so that the computer and the WRT300N exist on the same network. Then reboot computer to establish a connection

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?

Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
***Cat-D

45. Which statements correctly describes the function of a Layer 2 switch?

***It performs switching and filtering based on the destination network layer address
    It automatically uses STP to prevent switching loops in redundant topologies
    It uses VTP to allow data from multiple VLANs to travel across a single link
    It routes packets between different LAN segments



46. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol?(Choose two)

***It only used at Layer 2
It is configured on routers
***It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies
It limits the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port
It allows VLAN information to propagate to other switches in the network

47. Which statement correctly describes the spanning-tree path cost?

It is calculated based on the total number of switches connected in a loop
It is calculated based on the utilization of all the switches along a given path
***It is calculated based on the bridge priority of the switches along a given path
It is calculated based on the sum of the port cost value, determited by link speed, for each switch port along a given path

48. What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?

It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic
It select the best path to transmit data in a switched network
***It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link
It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network

49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?

to activate port Fa0/10
***to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

50. Refer to the exhibit. Router R-West and switch S-West1 are connected via a single ethernet cable between the router interface fa0/0 and the switch interface fa0/1. The router and switch have been configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit. The network administrator enters the show interfaces trunk command and receives the output as shown. What is the cause of the "not-trunking" status for switch port Fa0/1?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to
use it
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements
necessary to form a trunk
***Because the router does not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol,
the trunk has not been established
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the
 dynamic desirable option for Dynamic Trunking Protocol to
 establish a trunk

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CCNA4 Chapter 7 100%

CCNA4 Chapter 7 100%.rar

Download here!

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1 (100%)

 http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com    
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

  Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

  The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

  ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

  analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

  Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

  The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

  low cost
  availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

  number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

  CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

  Physical Layer
  Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

  ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

  A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

  access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

  Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

  circuit switching
  data bearer channels
  time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
  CIR
  DLCI
  PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

  modem
  CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

  metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

  ATM switches
  core routers
  Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

  dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

  tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

  DCE

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3 (100%)

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

  Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

  Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

  locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

  virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

  Inverse ARP
  LMI status messages

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

  The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

  The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
  Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

  It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

  two point-to-point subinterfaces

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

  The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

  It is experiencing congestion.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

  The local DLCI number is 401.
  Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

  110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

  R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
  R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
  R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
  R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

  The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

  The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

  The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
  The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

  Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

  To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

  drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
  sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
  sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

  Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
  The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

  The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command  show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)

  The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
  A timing problem has occurred on the cable.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

  The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.

4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?

  Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.

5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)

  Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
  Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

6. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

  PAP

7. What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?

  to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?

  Router(config)# hostname R3
  R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco
  R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
  R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
  R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

9. What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?

  It supports authentication

10. Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?

  multilink

11. Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)

  HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary.
  HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers.
  HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?

  The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.

13. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

  Data is able to flow across this link.

14.  
Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?

  EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)

15. What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?

  physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins

16. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

  It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
  It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
  It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

  The router has agreed on IP parameters.
  The router has negotiated LCP successfully.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?

  Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

19. Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)

  PAP sends passwords in clear text.
  CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.
  CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

20. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

  link quality
  authentication

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?

  two

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CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 7 (100%)

1. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

  probe request

2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

  converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

  Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?

  Network Name (SSID)

5. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?

  CSMA/CA

6. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?

  beacon

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)

  gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
  built-in Ethernet switch
  wireless access point

8. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?

  This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.

9. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)

  802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
  802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?

  802.11n

11. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?

  to keep signals from interfering with each other

12. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?

  determines that the correct host is utilizing the network

13. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?

  media contention

14. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?

  MAC address filtering

15. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

  site survey

16. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

  A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
  With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?

  Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

  Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

19. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

  set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it

20. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)

  Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
  Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

21. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)

  Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
  802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.

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CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0 100%

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch

5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A -- WAN
• Network B -- WAN
• Network C -- LAN
• Network B -- MAN
• Network C -- WAN
• Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU's
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors

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