CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1 - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

1. What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

	a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
	a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
	a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
	a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
	a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
	a protocol that conducts a test of the path through which a packet travels from source to destination

2. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

	PDU #1 is a frame.
	PDU #2 is an application layer PDU
	PDU #3 is a segment.
	PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.
	The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
	The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3.

3. What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

	data transport reliability
	best path determination
	establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
	encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
	best-effort datagram delivery

4. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router:

RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0

RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252

RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

	Ethernet
	Frame Relay
	HDLC
	PPP

5. Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

	improper placement of enterprise level servers
	addition of hosts to a physical segment
	replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
	increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
	creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts
	migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

6. A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?

	client
	server
	domain
	transparent
	designated

7. What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?

	hold-down timers
	poison reverse
	Spanning Tree Protocol
	Time to Live
	Split Horizon Protocol
	Routing Information Protocol

8. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)

	one broadcast domain
	three broadcast domains
	three collision domains
	five broadcast domains
	nine collision domains
	ten collision domains

9. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem?

	FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.
	FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.
	VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2.
	Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.
	Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?

	The management VLAN is VLAN 99.
	The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99.
	The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99.
	The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the 10.99.0.0 network.

11. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.

00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.

00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.

Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?

	The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.
	The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.
	The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.
	The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
	The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

	because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99
	because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN
	because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
	because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface
	because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration?

	RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q
	RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q

14. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem?

	SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port.
	The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs.
	The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20.
	The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN.
	The IP address of computer A is incorrect.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

	host B
	host C
	host D
	host E
	host F
	host G

16. Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)

	All hosts are in one collision domain.
	All hosts are in one broadcast domain.
	A router is required for communication between VLANs.
	The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.
	The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.

17. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

	VLSM
	PVST
	802.1Q
	RSTP
	VTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

	SW1 will become the root bridge.
	SW2 will become the root bridge.
	SW2 will get a port blocked.
	SW4 will get a port blocked.
	SW3 will become the root bridge.
	SW4 will become the root bridge.

19. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

	prevents Layer 2 loops
	prevents routing loops on a router
	creates smaller collision domains
	creates smaller broadcast domains
	allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

20. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

	Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
	Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
	Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
	It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

21. Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)

	192.168.14.8
	192.168.14.16
	192.168.14.24
	192.168.14.32
	192.168.14.148
	192.168.14.208

22. Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown?

	IPv4
	IPv6
	TCP
	UDP

23.

24. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

	10.78.103.0
	10.67.32.0
	10.78.160.0
	10.78.48.0
	172.55.96.0
	172.211.100.0

25. What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?

	a useable host address
	a broadcast address
	a network address
	a multicast address
	a public address

26. Which address is a valid IPv6 global unicast address?

	FE90::1::FFFF
	FD80::1::1234
	FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
	FEA0::100::7788:998F
	FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF

27. A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements:

Network 1 - 500 hosts

Network 2 - 100 hosts

Network 3 - 1000 hosts

Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)

	255.255.0.0
	255.255.255.0
	255.255.254.0
	255.255.252.0
	255.255.248.0
	255.255.255.128
	255.255.255.192

28.

29. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

	RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
	RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

30. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?

	SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# duplex full
	SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
	SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# duplex full
	SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

31. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

	the IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0
	the OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address
	the loopback interface IP address
	the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
	the highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces

32. What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?

	routing table
	topology table
	DUAL table
	CAM table
	ARP table

33. What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

	link-state advertisements (LSA)
	Spanning Tree Protocol
	shortest path first tree
	split horizon
	hold-down timers

34. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

	R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
	R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
	The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
	R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
	R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

35. Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?

	ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.240 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1

36. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

	application
	transport
	network
	data link
	physical

37. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

	They use hop count as their only metric.
	They only send out updates when a new network is added.
	They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
	They flood the entire network with routing updates.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?

	router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.10.192
	router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0

39. Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?

	passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
	passive-interface serial 0/0/0
	access-class 12 out
	access-class 12 in

40. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

	D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
	O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0
	R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0
	S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

	The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
	The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
	The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
	The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.
	The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.

42. When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?

	when security is an issue
	when user mobility is needed
	when more than one laptop is used in a cubicle
	when electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue

43. Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

	802.11a
	802.11b
	802.11g
	802.11i
	802.11n

44. Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?

	The enable secret command has not been issued yet.
	The enable password command has not been issued yet.
	The password command has not been set for the console port.
	The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet.

45.

46. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

	Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
	The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
	A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
	The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured.

47. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

	destination address and wildcard mask
	source address and wildcard mask
	subnet mask and wildcard mask
	access list number between 100 and 199
	access list number between 1 and 99

48. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

	most
	host
	all
	any
	some
	gt

49. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

	They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
	They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
	They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
	They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:

deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

	Hera(config)# interface fa0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
	Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
	Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

51.

52. Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration:

R3# show running-config

--some output text omitted--

interface serial0

bandwidth 128

ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0

encapsulation frame-relay

frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem?

	No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.
	There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
	An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
	The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword.

53. What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

	BECN
	DLCI
	DE
	FECN
	LMI
	Inverse ARP

54. Which network device is commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network?

	ACL
	IDS
	firewall
	concentrator

55. What is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router?

	PPP
	HDLC
	Frame Relay
	CHAP
	IEEE 802.1Q

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Take Assessment - EWAN Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

94.8%

1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.

All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.



2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The username and password are not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The vtys are not configured correctly.



3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.



4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network



5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.



6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

Company A is closer to the service provider.




7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)

This network is experiencing congestion.

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.

The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.



9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with overload.



10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses



11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2



12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)

A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.

A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.

It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.

The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.

When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.

Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.


13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP



14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

application layer



15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.


17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?

broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections

satellite based network connections

dedicated point-to-point circuits

Frame Relay PVCs



18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable



19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

A modem terminates an analog local loop.

A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.



20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.



21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.



22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.



23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

DLCI 200



24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

variable bandwidth capacity

fewer physical router interfaces



25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP

CDP updates

SNMP services

RIP authentication



26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.



27. Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.



28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .



29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.



30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.


31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.



32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.



33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes



34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.



35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

physical



36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

interface fa0/0/1, outbound



37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.



38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.

There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.



39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2



40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.



41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet



42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.



43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?

From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.

From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.

From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.

From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.



44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network



45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?

Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.


46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80



47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.



48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.



49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.



50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.



51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

demarcation point

local loop

cloud



52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.



53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

map DLCIs to network addresses

provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC



54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

CHAP

Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

Multilink



55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

encapsulation

encryption

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CCNA 640-802 WAN Practice Questions

Brief: CCNA exam requires a good understanding of WAN concepts, terminology, and implementation using Cisco routers. We have given a few multiple choice questions to gauge your preparedness (yourself) of the subject before taking the exam!

Q1: Cisco IOS supports MPPC (Microsoft Point-to-Point Compression algorithm) on one of the following encapsulation types. Choose the correct one.

A. HDLC B. LAPB C. PPP D. Frame-Relay

Ans.: C

Compression algorithms supported by Cisco IOS are:

Encapsulation Type	Compression type supported by Cisco IOS
HDLC	STAC
LAPB	STAC, Predictor
PPP	STAC, Predictor, MPPC
Frame-Relay	STAC, FRF.9

PPP is supported by STAC, Predictor, and MPPC. Compression algorithms supported by Frame-Relay for payload compression are STAC, and FRF.9.

Q2. Which of the following is not an interface associated with a WAN connection?

A. V.35 B. EIA 232 C. EIA 530 D. MSAU E. X.21

Ans.: D

Expl.:

Typical WAN interfaces, that one come across frequently are:

EIA 232, EIA 449, EIA 530, V.35, and X.21. The Cisco router serial interface will be a 60-pin D-shell connector. This in turn is connected to service provider equipment, usually through a CSU/ DSU. Therefore, appropriate conversion cable need to be used when interfacing with a WAN device such a CSU/DSU. CSU/ DSU in turn is connected to the service provider through the cable supplied by the service provider.

Q3. Your router is connect to the service provider through a CSU/DSU. Choose appropriate interfaces used in correct order, starting from the router interface.

A. 60-pin D-shell connector --> EIA/TIA 232 --> RJ 45

B. 60-pin D-shell connector --> RJ 45 --> EIA/TIA 232

C. RJ 45 --> 60-pin D-shell connector --> EIA/TIA 232

D. EIA/TIA 232 --> RJ 45 --> 60-pin D shell connector

Ans.: A.

Expl.: Traditionally, the router interface on a serial link is a 60-pin D-shell connector. The CSU/DSU may have EIA/TIA 232 interface to the router. The CSU/DSU interface to the service provider could be RJ-11, RJ-45 etc.

Q4. Frame Relay protocol is based on fixed size frame length. In other words, the frame size can not be flexible.

A. TRUE B. FALSE

Ans.: B (False)

Expl. Frame Relay is WAN protocol, that allows multi-access. Frame Relay works on packet-switched technology. Packet switched networks enable end stations to dynamically share the network medium and the available bandwidth. In Frame Relay, variable-length packets are used for more efficient and flexible data transfer.

Q5. Frame Relay supports which of the following?

A. PVCs only B. SVCs only C. Both PVCs and SVCs D. None

Ans.C

Expl.: Frame Relay supports two type of virtual circuits (VCs):

1. Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) _ these are permanently established connection that are used for frequent and consistent data transfers between DTEs across a Frame Relay cloud.

2. Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs) _ these are temporary connections used in situations requiring only occassional data transfers between DTEs across Frame Relay cloud.
The terms "Call Setup", "Data Transfer", "Idle", and "Call Termination" are associated with SVCs. Frame Relay SVCs are not widely supported by manufacturers.

Q6. Frame Relay DLCIs must be unique in a Frame Relay network.

A. TRUE B. FALSE

Ans.: B

Expl.: DLCI stands for Data-Link Connection Identifier. Frame Relay DLCIs have local significance, which means that the values themselves are not unique in the Frame Relay WAN. DLCIs must be unique on a given access link, i.e. the physical channel on which they reside.

Q7. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T B. U C. V D. S

Correct answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

ISDN uses four different reference points to define logical interfaces:
1. R-reference point: Defines the reference point between non-ISDN compatible devices and a Terminal Adapter (TA).
2. S-reference point: Defines the reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
3. T-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 and NT2.
4. U-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 devices and line-termination equipment in a carrier network.
The flow of reference points are:
[TE2] ---R--->[TA]---S/T--->[NT1]--->U--->to carrier
[TE2]--->R--->[TA]--->S--->[NT2]--->T--->[NT2]--->to carrier

Q8. A frame is received at the destination router over Frame Relay network with FECN bit value set to 1. What does this indicate?

A. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

B. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

C. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

D. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

Ans.: A

Expl.: Frame Relay has two types of congestion notification mechanisms:

FECN: Forward-Explicit Congestion Notification, and

BECN: Backward-Explicit Congestion Notification.

If the network is congested in the direction of source to destination, FR switches set the value of the frames FECN to 1(one). DTE devices may implement flow control based on this information. FR switches set the value of BECN bit to 1 (one) in frames traveling in the opposite direction of frames with their FECN bit set. This will enable to DTE device to initiate appropriate flow control in the direction in which the frame has arrived.

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CCNA 640-802 VLAN / VTP Practice Questions

1.

Brief: CCNA exam requires a good understanding of VLAN / VTP concepts, terminology, and implementation using Cisco switches. We have given a few multiple choice questions to gauge your preparedness (yourself) of the subject before taking the exam!

Q1: Match the trunking protocols with respective media:
1. Inter Switch Link A. FDDI
2. LANE B. Fast Ethernet
3. 802.10 C. ATM
Choose the correct choice.

A. 1-> C, 2->B, 3->A B. 1->B, 2->C, 3->A C. 1->B, 2->A, 3->C D. 1->A, 2->B, 3->C

Ans:B
Explanation:
ISL, 802.1Q are the VLAN trunking protocols associated with Fast Ethernet. The VLAN trunking protocol defined by 802.10 is associated with FDDI. LANE (LAN Emulation) is associated with ATM.

2.

Q2: Your switched network is using Inter-Switch Link (ISL) as VLAN trunking protocol. Which following must be a part of ISL header field?

A. Source Port Number B. VLAN-ID C. Destination port number D. Destination network number

Ans: B
Explanation:
Inter-Switch Link (ISL) is one of the VLAN trunking protocols used for switched VLAN networks. It uses frame tagging to identify the VLAN. ISL encapsulates the original Ethernet frame, and a VLAN-ID is inserted into the ISL header.

3.

Q3: You have configured your network to have 3 VLANs. How many broadcast domains do you have?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Ans.: C
Explanation: It is important to know the difference between a collision domain and a broadcast domain. When you use Hubs, all the nodes connected to the hub will be in the same collision domain. However, when you use switches and implement VLANs, each VLAN will be in a separate broadcast domain. The packet forwarding between VLANs is achieved through the use of routing.

4.

Q4: Your network has 100 nodes on a single broadcast domain. You have implemented VLANs and segmented the network to have 2 VLANs of 50 nodes each. The resulting broadcast traffic effectively:

A. Increases two fold B. Remains same C. Decreases by half D. Increases 4 fold

Ans: C
Explanation: By implementing VLANs,
1. The effective broadcast traffic decreases, since VLANs do not forward the broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another.
2. The security can be improved by implementing a router (A layer 3 device) to route the packets among VLANs.

5.

Q5: Which of the following are valid VLAN Trunk Protocols over Fast Ethernet? [Select 2].

A. Inter-Switch Link B. 802.10 C. LANE D. 802.1Q

Ans: A, D
Expl.: Inter-Switch Link and 802.1Q are two VLAN Trunking Protocols used with Fast Ethernet, that Cisco supports. LANE is associated with ATM and 802.10 is associated with FDDI. Also, it is important to note that ISL, 802.1Q, and 802.10 use Frame Tagging to identify the VLANs.

6.

Q6: You have two switches with 24 ports each and configured the network to have only one VLAN. Do you need to implement the VTP between the switches?

A. YES B. NO

Ans: B
Expl.: The primary function of VTP is to tag frames (with VLAN ID) as they traverse through the switch fabric. The switch fabric is assumed to have multiple VLANs. If there is only one VLAN, there is no need to tag a frame. Therefore, there is no need to implement VTP between the switches that have only one VLAN.

7.

Q7: Which of the following is not a valid VTP mode?

A. Server B. Client C. Transparent D. Hybrid

Ans: D
Expl.: VTP is a Layer 2 messaging protocol. It carries configuration information throughout a single domain. VTP operates in one of three modes:
1. Server mode
2. Client mode
3. Transparent mode
VTP Servers can create, modify, or delete VLANs and other configuration parameters for the specified VLAN domain.
A VTP client can't create, change, or delete VLANs.
A VTP transparent mode is used when a switch is not required to participate in VTP, but only pass the information to other switches. Transparent switches don't work either as Server or clients.
Configurations made to a single switch, called VTP server, are propagated across the switch fabric under a single domain control. Other switches, configured as VTP clients, learn the configuration information from the server. It is important to know that, Cisco switches such as Catalyst 1900, acting as VTP servers save the VLAN configuration information in their Non volatile memory (NVRAM), whereas client keep the information only in running configuration.

8.

Q8: A switch up-dates its VLAN configuration based on which of the following information? Choose the most appropriate answer.
A. Time of arrival of VTP update packet
B. Configuration Revision number
C. Direction of Arrival
D. Port that it has learned
Ans.: B
Expl.: A VTP advertisement necessarily consists of "Configuration revision number". Every time a VTP server updates its VLAN information, it increments the configuration revision number by one count. VTP clients, use the revision number to enforce the VLAN configuration Update.

9.

Q9: You have configured VLANs in your switched network and now want to check whether you have configured properly. Which command do you use? Assume that you are in privileged EXEC mode. Select one.

A. sh v-lan B. sh vlan vlan# C. sh vlan# D. sh v-lans v-lan#

Ans.: B
Expl.: You use show vlan or shor vlan vlan# command to see the configuration details of VLANs. The command "sh vlan" will display the configuration information for all VLANs, where as the command "sh vlan vlan#" shows only the configuration information pertaining to that vlan. For example, if you want to see the configuration information for vlan2, you give the command "sh vlan 2".

10.

Q10: You want to see whether the pruning is enabled in you network or not. Which command can you use to check this?

A. sh version B. sh spantree C. sh vtp D. sh vlan

Ans.: C
Expl.: To verify any configuration change, "show vtp" privileged executive command can be used. This command displays, among other things, VTP domain name, VTP password if any, VTP pruning mode (enabled or disabled) and the IP address of the device that last modified the configuration.

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